Jesus' Name

Elijah_NatureBoy's picture

Average: 3 (1 vote)

In Matthew 1:21 are the words, "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins". I researched the name Jesus to see just how it fit that scripture and what I found is the name "Jesus" is a Greek word or a combination of a Greek god and a Roman god.

Even Greeks are not sure how the word came into existence but the prefix "je" is said to mean praise, and "sus" is a changed form of Zeus, the supreme god of the Greeks. So the name, by that finding would mean "praise Zeus", and I don't see how praising Zeus will save any Hebrews whose god is YHVH, written as JHWH, and mean I AM THAT I AM.

I don't remember at this time what the Roman god's name was Jesus is said to have taken the "je" from but as in the above, the "sus" represents Zeus. I did find a Hebrew word zeus with the meaning "IT IS AS IT IS". Then if we say the "je" is a short form for JHWH the name would mean "I AM THAT I AM: IT IS AS IT IS". In that definition Jesus there is still nothing to suggest his being a savior, so why is it written "for he shall save the people from their sins"?

There have been many searchers for some evidences for a person with the name Jesus, and their only findings have been a mentioning of the name. Did this man exist or is the recorded name incorrect?

The Bible is a book of "symbols and types". Moses has said (Deut. 18:15) "a prophet like unto him" shall come. Is it possible Jesus is "typed" in the story of Israel's ["endurers" by definition] coming out of Egypt?

When we go to Revelation 11:8 we see a place spiritually called Sodom and Egypt. Sodom means "all forms of sexual conduct are being preformed". Egypt has the meaning of "enslaver or place of bondage". That place is also to be the place where "our Lord was crucified".

Has the nation of Israel ever been an enslaver? Is what they are doing to the Palestinians worthy of being called "a place of bondage"? Has the sex life in the nation of Israel ever been sodomizing? For Israel to be the place, the answer to those questions has to be yes.

If we go to Genesis 49:1&8-12 we find a description of the "end time praised nation". It is a nation all of its leader's ethnic (brethren) praise, it uses economic sanctions against its enemies (hand in the neck), most nations (father's children) shall bow to it, a young nation and offspring of Great Britain (lion's whelp) acting as a nation of antiquity, because of her nuclear weapons on ICBM (Zech. 5:1-4) no nation will arouse it to anger and it makes the laws for other nations (sceptre) while walking on the same laws (lawgiver between his feet) until Shiloh (ha'meshiach II, or the second christ) comes. As I have interpreted, that is the United States of America, and all of those things are happening here, including sodomizing, and was an enslaver.

Where can we find scripture suggesting two different ha'meshiachs"? Exodus 4:6-8, first and latter signs, is the first clear one. Isaiah 11:1-12, the rod and the branch, is the second clear one. The stone Moses was told to smite (Exo. 17:1-6) and the one he was told to speak to but smote twice (Num. 20:1-11) is a third type of 2 ha'meshiachs. Upon seeing the 2 stones as types of the ha'meshiachs, Daniel 2's rock cut out of the mountain without hands is a type of ha'meshiach II while the "iron and clay feet" is the USA. The feet of iron and clay also represent the pillar (good and evil) of the temple Samson destroyed (Judges 16:25-30) and the rock and Samson are types of ha'meshiach II.

With 2 Old Testament ha'meshiachs, one in Israel and one in the U.S., there has to be New Testament prophecy of him. The easiest to see is the difference between Matthew 12:40 and John 2:18-21. 12:40 requires the out of body experience (OBE) body to be in the earth for 3 days and 3 nights while 2:18-21 only require the OBE to be done IN part of three different days. Who we call Jesus was OBE only from 3 pm Friday until prior to sunrise Sunday (Mat. 27:50-28:6), no more than 39 hours. Matthew 17:1-5 is a New Testament type of Exodus 4:6-8. In comparing the voice to Exodus the meaning is "you should have heard Moses, now hear Jesus, but if you don't, you must hear Elijah".

Following that background information allow me to return to Jesus being typed in "the work of Moses".

Moses led Israel out of bondage of Egypt and through the wilderness. Joshua [Yeshua in Hebrew meaning "I AM THAT I AM SAVES"] took Israel into the promised land. Jesus said "...if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also". Therefore Jesus should have had the name of Yeshua or Joshua. I use the name Yeshua.

Yeshua said (John 14:26) "the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you". When we look at Yeshua after his OBE we see he was a whole man who functioned as ghosts are said to do; disappeared Luke 24:13-31) and appear at will (24:36), could be handled (24:39),enter locked rooms without going through doors (John 20:26) and ate as any man (21:13); Elijah will be that holy ghost upon his manifesting (Isa. 52:13-53:12+ Mat. 12:40+ Rev. 5:12) s the "prophet like unto Moses".

The prophet like unto Moses is will destroy the concept of good and evil which takes with it civilization. He will lead the endurers (Mat. 24:15&22) into the millennium (Rev. 20:4) and while "replenishing the earth" (Rev. 20:5) Yeshua will rapture (John 14:6 & Acts 1:9) them into the "father's house" according to Matthew 20:1-16.

Finally, Yeshua told us "baptize in the name of the father and of theson and of the holy ghost". The phrase "and of" means it is also common to. The father's name being YHVH meanning "I AM THAT I AM" has to be common to the son and holy ghost. Jesus could mean "I AM THAT I AM; IT IA AS IT IS, but that doesn't say it is a name to save, as our opening quote suggests. Yeshua has the meaning of "I AM THAT I AM SAVES", so that would be the name common to the father as well meaning to save. Elijah means "ALMIGHTY GOD IS I AM THAT I AM", making him qualified to b the holy ghost.

solo's picture

The source is known and is straightforward

Jesus is the linguistic derivative of the original Hebrew name of Jesus: Yesho (in Hebrew: ישוע) which its meaning in Hebrew is salvation. Ancient Hebrew was the language then of the Hebrew Jewish people of Palestine and Jesus was originally one of them, as you now.

Only later when everything was translated the distortion happened.

It was a common distortion when terms in ancient Hebrew of the time of the bible and afterwards were translated to latin and other languages. Similar distortion is Jerusalem that is derived from the Hebrew name: Yerushalayim

solo | Mon, 12/01/2008 - 12:31
Elijah_NatureBoy's picture

What is your source [in

What is your source [in English] so i may find it. All of the references I have obtained say nothing about original Hebrew. Of course, if you are a Hebrew with access to the language, or memory, I would like to know that also. I have found no source to say that.

Have you questioned your beliefs? Reason the different concepts until all pros and cons are integrated into the 64,800 degrees of your vision.
--Elijah "NatureBoy"--

Elijah_NatureBoy | Sat, 12/06/2008 - 00:56